[4]Arthur Weigall, The Paganism in Our Christianity.
IslamBasics
The second part of the Christian doctrine of the Atonement is that God's Justice requires that a price must be paid for the original and other sins of man. lf God were to pardon a sinner without punishing him would be a denial of His Justice. The Rev. W. Goldsack writes in this connection:
Question: Can you explain this hadith:
"The Prophet (ﷺ) used to copy the people of the Scriptures in matters in which there was no order from Allah."
Sahih al-Bukhari 5917
Answer:
Praise be to Allah,
Here is the full text of the hadith:
عَنِ ابْنِ عَبَّاسٍ ـ رضى الله عنهما ـ قَالَ كَانَ النَّبِيُّ صلى الله عليه وسلم يُحِبُّ مُوَافَقَةَ أَهْلِ الْكِتَابِ فِيمَا لَمْ يُؤْمَرْ فِيهِ، وَكَانَ أَهْلُ الْكِتَابِ يَسْدِلُونَ أَشْعَارَهُمْ، وَكَانَ الْمُشْرِكُونَ يَفْرُقُونَ رُءُوسَهُمْ، فَسَدَلَ النَّبِيُّ صلى الله عليه وسلم نَاصِيَتَهُ، ثُمَّ فَرَقَ بَعْدُ.
The Prophet ﷺ used to like to adopt the customs of the People of the Book in matters not specifically commanded by Allah. The People of the Book would let their hair hang down, while the polytheists would part their hair. So the Prophet ﷺ adopted the practice of letting his hair hang down from his forehead, and then parted it afterwards. [Sahih al-Bukhari 5917]
Diverting from the practices of the disbelievers is a general principle, so that they could be distinguished by their actions and appearances. In this hadith, Abdullah bin Abbas, may Allah be pleased with him, informs that the Prophet ﷺ used to let his hair hang down - without dividing it into two halves - because the polytheists used to divide their heads from the middle into two parts. The people of the Book, the Jews and the Christians, used to let their hair hang down.
Therefore, the Prophet ﷺ agreed with the people of the Book and disagreed with the idolaters, because the people of the Book were closer to the truth than the polytheists. The Prophet ﷺ loved to agree with the people of the Book in matters where there was no revelation, and his agreement with them was because he had to agree with one of the two groups, so he chose to agree with the people of the Book because they were still following some of the remains of the religion of the prophets, which had not been distorted or changed. Later, when only the people of the Book remained and most Arabs entered the religion of Allah in masses, he parted his hair, contrary to the people of the Book, and ordered to part the hair contrary to the Jews and Christians.
This hadith explains the legitimacy of parting the hair.
The hadith ensure
that the people of Islam are distinguished from others such as people of the
Book and polytheists. [ See Hadith Encyclopedia ]
Imam Ibn Hajar commented:
وكأن السر في ذلك أن أهل الأوثان أبعد عن الإيمان من أهل الكتاب ، ولأن أهل الكتاب يتمسكون بشريعة في الجملة فكان يحب موافقتهم ليتألفهم ولو أدت موافقتهم إلى مخالفة أهل الأوثان ، فلما أسلم أهل الأوثان الذين معه والذين حوله واستمر أهل الكتاب على كفرهم تمحضت المخالفة لأهل الكتاب...
وقد جمعت المسائل التي وردت الأحاديث فيها بمخالفة أهل الكتاب فزادت على الثلاثين حكما ، وقد أودعتها كتابي الذي سميته " القول الثبت في الصوم يوم السبت ".
"And it seems that the reason for that is that the people of idols are further from faith than the people of the Book, and because the people of the Book cling to a law as a whole, the Prophet ﷺ loved their agreement to draw them to Islam, even if their agreement led to opposition to the people of idols. So, when the people of idols, who were with him and around him, embraced Islam and the people of the Book continued in their disbelief, the opposition became purely to the people of the Book....
I have compiled the issues whose hadiths ordered to divert from the practice of People of the Book, and they have exceeded thirty rulings. I have deposited them in my book, which I named 'Al-Qawl Al-Thabit Fi Sawm Yawm Al-Sabt' (The Confirmed Statement Regarding Fasting on Saturday)."
In conclusion, Muslims used to consider people of the book more close to the truth because they have remnants of divine revelation (That's why they were happy when Romans defeated Persians).
And Allah knows best!
The fourth Christian dogma is that of the Atonement. Christianity declares that by disobeying God's Order not to eat of the forbidden fruit of knowledge, Adam sinned. The sin of Adam is inherited by all the children of Adam: all human beings are born sinful. The requirement of God's Justice is that a price must be paid for every sin. God cannot and will not allow a single sin to go unpunished. Now the only thing which can wipe out sin is the shedding of blood. As St. Paul Puts it,
"Original Sin" is Confusing and Problematic
The concept of Original Sin is indeed amongst one of the most problematic in Christian theology. Not only is it NOT found in the Old Testament but Jesus never
taught this foreign belief either. The suspicious origin of this
belief is further highlighted by parts of the Bible which seem to be
contradicting the Original Sin concept – amazing!
This post will consist of two parts; firstly a short video by
BeholderGuard highlighting the passages in the Bible which seem to
counter the concept of Original Sin, and secondly the Bible verses in
question will be quoted and commentary added as well as further
discussion being put forward in order to help the reader to realise the
concept of Original Sin is not one taught by God, Jesus or any Old
Testament Prophet (it is taught by a man who never met Jesus, named
Paul)
Why is the Original Sin not in Genesis?
You would expect an author who believes in the Original Sin to make
mention of it when referring to the results of Adam’s sin; in the Bible
this would be in Genesis (Genesis chapter 3). However, this belief of
Original sin is not only absent in Genesis but the entire Old Testament
fails to mention it, thus the Prophets never taught this foreign belief
(the same applies to Prophet Jesus)
Is the Original Sin concept Biblical?
It is neither in the Old Testament nor in the Gospel accounts. Paul introduces this concept in Romans:
Therefore,
just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin,
and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned Romans 5:12 (also see 1 Cor. 15:22 and Rom. 5:17-19).
So is it Biblical? It depends on your definition of "Biblical". If you
allow the teachings of Paul to be included in the Bible then the
concept of Original Sin is indeed Biblical (albeit somewhat
contradictory to earlier portions of the Bible). If you disregard
Paul’s teachings then the concept of Original Sin is unbiblical. It is a
very taxing conundrum the Christian is facing. The Old Testament
certainly offers Paul no help but piles on the misery by militating
against the belief in question
The Old Testament Contradicts Paul’s concept of Original Sin
As BeholderGuard mentions; Ezekiel 18 is key in this regard.
For every living soul belongs to me, the father as well as the son--both alike belong to me. The soul who sins is the one who will die Ezekiel 18:4
Also:
The soul who sins is the one who will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father,
nor will the father share the guilt of the son. The righteousness of
the righteous man will be credited to him, and the wickedness of the
wicked will be charged against him. Ezekiel 18:20
Ezekiel
18 clearly shows each individual is responsible for their own sin.
Surely the foreign belief of Original Sin is confusing in the light of
Ezekiel 18.
2 Kings refutes the idea sin is passed onto posterity
Yet
he did not put the sons of the assassins to death, in accordance with
what is written in the Book of the Law of Moses where the LORD
commanded: "Fathers shall not be put to death for their children, nor
children put to death for their fathers; each is to die for his own sins." 2 Kings 14:6
Clearly dying for your own sins indicates you are not responsible or
lumbered with your forefather’s sin. Again, the question is asked; if
God really wanted us to believe in Original Sin then why have this verse
and Ezekiel 18 in the Bible?
A departure from the Bible: Original Sin is problematic as it seems unfair
Why should an innocent baby be born with Original Sin? Christians do
believe all are unclean (including babies), Saint Augustine:
No one is clean, not even if his life be only for a day (A dictionary from Biblical tradition in English literature, p.577)
Jesus Refutes Paul’s idea of Original Sin?
However, things get even more confusing as Paul’s belief is shot down by Jesus himself; Jesus intimates children are innocent:
Jesus said, "Let the little children come to me, and do not hinder them, for the kingdom of heaven belongs to such as these." Matthew 19:14 (also view Mark 10:14 and Luke 18:16)
Conclusion
The Original Sin is amongst the most problematic beliefs a Christian
adopts – it is clearly a product from Paul’s devices. The Christian is
left with the dilemma of why did Jesus never teach such a doctrine and
why does he appear to contradict Paul.
Islam frees you from such a headache
“Then you will know the truth, and the truth will set you free”
incarnation
Further Reading: Misha’al Ibn Abdullah’s What Did Jesus Really Say?
Forgiveness
Addendum
Does Psalm 51:5 teach the Original Sin?
No.
We have already seen Old Testament Biblical passages which militate
against the idea of Original Sin. However, a commentator did bring up
Psalm 51:5 as an Old Testament verse to support the idea of the Original
Sin. Here is the ESV translation of the said verse:
Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me.
As you can see for yourself, this verse is not teaching the Original
Sin, it seems to be about the sinful act of adultery yielding a child;
the Psalm is thought to be a projection upon the future child of an
adulterous relationship.
However, the NIV translation does seem to teach a branch of the Original Sin (i.e. babies are with sin):
Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.
So which translation is correct?
Firstly, if the NIV translation (the one teaching Original Sin) is
correct then the Bible-believing Christians will have contradictions on
their hands. The verses mentioned in the opening article on the topic
of Original Sin (Ezekiel 8:4 and 20, 2 Kings 14:6) would be deemed as
contradicting Psalm 51:5, thus further discrediting the Bible.
However, in my research of Psalm 51:5 I have found three more verses (from the OT)
which seem to refute the idea of Original Sin. The first two go
together(Jeremiah 3:25 and Genesis 8:21); they appear to indicate a
human only becomes sinful from his/her youth, i.e. at the time of
discernment between right and wrong (good and evil). In fact Jeremiah
3:25 indicates humans sin from their youth onwards, thus the idea of
Original Sin upon babies seems to be in real question here.
This age of discernment between good and evil appears to be mentioned in Isaiah 7:15-16 as well.
See appendix one for these three Bible verses in full.
Going back to Psalm 51:5, which translation is correct?
The NIV translation seems to be in error and appears to be unfaithful as
the NASB, ESV and KJV all disagree with the NIV translation. The three
aforementioned translations all indicate the child was conceived in
sin UNLIKE the NIV which suggests the child was sinful at the time of
birth.
New American Standard Bible (NASB):
Behold, I was (A)brought forth in iniquity,And in sin my mother conceived me.
King James Version (KJV):
Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me
English Standard Version (ESV):
Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me.
So there is NO teaching of Original Sin in this verse! The verse is
concerning the sin of adultery; it does not mean the child is born with
sin. In fact the verse does not make mention of Adam's sin.
Commentary on Psalm 51:5 refutes the Original Sin
This verse has already been explained by T.W Brents and the explanation denounces the idea of Original Sin:
Whatever may be the meaning of this passage, it can not be the imputation of sin to the child. ‘In sin did my mother conceive me:’ that is, she acted wickedly when I was conceived.
Were the wife to say, ‘In drunkenness my husband beat me,’or the child
that ‘in anger my father whipped me,’ surely no one would attribute
drunkenness to the wife or anger to the child; neither can they impute the sin of the mother to the child (1957, 133, 134).
(Sourced from: http://www.christiancourier.com/arti...pplied-passage)
So is the Original Sin mentioned in the Old Testament?
No, the idea of Original Sin seems to be shunned and denounced by the
Old Testament authors. We have already realised that Jesus never taught
the concept of Original Sin and moreover we see the Gospel accounts
(Matthew 19:14 (also view Mark 10:14 and Luke 18:16) indicate Jesus
considered children as innocent (thus refuting Original Sin).
As previously mentioned, the foreign concept of Original Sin first came
into existence by a man named Paul. He seems to be contradicting the
Old Testament as well as Jesus.
Is the Original Sin moral?
The moral dilemma continues for the Christian who believes in the
Original Sin. Why are babies born with sin and thought to be hell-bound
if unbaptized? St Augustine was a strong advocate for this idea of
Original Sin:
In truth, all men who are sullied by the original sin were born of Adam and Eve [Augustine, vol 2, p 633].
Thus St Augustine believed babies were born with sin, is this just?
Furthermore Augustine believed unbaptized babies went to hell:
Augustine believed that the only definitive destinations of souls are heaven and hell. He concluded that unbaptized infants go to hell as a consequence of original sin [http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Original_sin]
Appendix 1
The three new Bible verses which appear to militate against the idea of Original Sin:
Jeremiah 3:25 (English Standard Version)
25(A)
Let us lie down in our shame, and let our dishonor cover us. For(B) we
have sinned against the LORD our God, we and our fathers, from our
youth even to this day, and we have not obeyed the voice of the LORD
our God."
Genesis 8:21 (English Standard Version)
21And
when the LORD smelled(A) the pleasing aroma, the LORD said in his
heart, "I will never again(B) curse[a] the ground because of man,
for(C) the intention of man’s heart is evil from his youth.(D) Neither
will I ever again strike down every living creature as I have done.
Isaiah 7:15-16 (English Standard Version)
15He
shall eat(A) curds and honey when he knows how to refuse the evil and
choose the good. 16(B) For before the boy knows how to refuse the evil
and choose the good, the land whose two kings you dread will be(C)
deserted
By: Mushfiqur Rahman
Original Sin, Redemption, & Divinity of Christ
Original Sin
There is no "original sin" in Islam. First of all, it is true that Adam
and Eve committed sin by disobeying God. But they were both forgiven by
God. Secondly, one man's action cannot be the burden of another man.
Every individual is responsible only for his or her actions. Thus,
every child is born pure and sinless. The world he sets foot in is also
seen as a positive ground for him to cultivate. Not only is he born
without sin, but also he is born actually with a set of positive things
to help him in his cultivation of the world: 1) God places love and
mercy in the hearts of his parents who would nurture him and take care
of him until he is grown up 2) He is given by God a array of fine tools
that he can utilize in fulfilling his role on earth: knowledge,
wisdom, intellect, conscience, logical deduction, etc. The world,
further, is not seen as something evil; rather it is seen as a positive
field that is ready for him to cultivate. Thus, in Islam, every child
is born with a positive start who sets foot in a positive world. This
is, of course, a major doctrinal difference between Islam and
Christianity. That can be explained in light of the historical
development of the Christian doctrines and the Church during the first
few centuries after Jesus (pbuh). For example, the theory of the original sin was developed by St. Paul, and not by Jesus.
Divine Redemption
Just like a child is not responsible for the actions of another person,
so his sins cannot be also redeemed by another person. Just as sins
cannot be transferred, so cannot be the credits. Every individual is an
independent person who is responsible for his or her actions alone.
There is no salvation, for there is no original burden. One's success
in the Hereafter lies in his living a righteous life in this world.
Faith is important, but faith without deeds will not earn him any good.
My purpose here is to only explain what Islam is and not discuss the
doctrinal development of Christianity. But it would be relevant here to
mention that the theory of divine redemption (that Christ died for our
sins) like the theory of original sin was also developed by St. Paul.
Both of these theories go together. Because there was an original sin,
now there was a need for redemption. The later, then, called for the
divinity of Christ. With this, I will now answer some of your
questions.
Question 1: Is Allah the Same as the Christian God?
As I have mentioned in my previous email, Allah is the same universal
God who created the universe and Who is worshipped by all Jews,
Christians, Muslims, and other faith communities. I have also mentioned
some of His attributes in my email. Where you come across any specific
difference, whether in attribute or in understanding, then I can
specifically discuss that topic if you write to me about it. The rest
of the issues come from assumptions that are simply not correct. In
saying so, I am blaming those who may have conveyed such ideas to you.
That is why I mentioned previously that one should undertake an
objective study without any preconceived notions. Anyway, to answer
your questions, Muhammad (p) did not claim that "Allah" is a greater
god than the god believed by Jews and Christian. He is the same God.
Neither did he choose one of the 360 gods to come up with the
"greatest" god. This assumption is the basis of most of your questions;
therefore, it suffices here to say that the assumption is incorrect.
Why Jews and Christians do not accept Muhammad can be explained by the
same reason as why Jews do not accept Jesus. Jesus (p) did not bring any
new message but spoke of the same eternal message of God to the
humanity: believing in God, living a righteous life, Day of Judgment,
accountability of actions, and so on. This message was the same as
preached by the previous prophets, but its spirit was lost. Thus Jesus
came as a renewer of the message of God. He was, of course, rejected by
the Jews. Identical case is with Muhammad (p). He came as a reformer
like Jesus (p) with the same message but was rejected by the Jews and
the Christians.
Question 2: Did Prophet Muhammad Receive Inspiration From the Same Source?
The answer to your question is "Yes". All prophetic inspirations come
from the same source - God Almighty. And all prophets speak the truth.
The "test" of a prophet can be made by an objective study of the message
he preaches and his life as a prophet. The message should be
consistent with the message preached by all other prophets. It should
be clarified here that the job of a prophet is not to mere make
prophecies about future events. Rather, it is to re-energize the
message of God to the humanity and provide them guidance so that they
can live a righteous life according to the will of God. That is why
"messenger" would be a more appropriate word than "prophet".
Question 3: Prophecies about the Coming of Jesus
Stating first that my purpose is not to hurt one's religious belief, I
would like to say, as a student of history, and purely from historical
perspective, that the Old Testament books are not considered 100%
authentic historical documents. It is an established fact that these
books were written over a period of 800 years by different authors at
different times. They were compiled from oral traditions that were
passed from generations to generations. Textual changes depending on
the understanding of the scribes were common. Commentaries made by
different scribes would later be considered by future generations to be
part of the text. At occasions books or parts of books would be lost,
requiring re-creations as in the case of the Torah which was lost when
Jerusalem was burned down in the 6th century BC. Thus from the point of
view of neutral history, God's message in the OT
books has been mixed with the cultural elements of the Israelite
traditions. This can be verified by studying the history of the Old
Testament. Thus, a Muslim considers that the OT
books do contain God's message but it also contains cultural
traditions that are not God's message. Muslims neither reject the OT
books completely, nor accept them with the understanding that they
contain God's words 100%. Now let us come back to the question of the
prophecies mentioned in the OT.
If there is any prophecy about the coming of Jesus, well and good.
Muslims certainly believe in Jesus as a prophet of God. But if one
considers himself fair-minded and takes on an objective analysis of the
OT prophecies and gives Jesus
and Muhammad equal rights under objective study without discounting one
or the other under a pre-conceived mind, one will find that there are
also prophecies in OT that
point to Muhammad. If you are sincerely interested in this topic, then
you can borrow a book from me the title of which is "Muhammad in the
Bible" (it was written by a Christian scholar named Rev. David Keldani
who accepted Islam). Having said this, I would like to ask you: do
you think these "600 prophecies" you mentioned exclusively point to
Jesus and not to any other historical person? If your answer is yes and
if you think that you have come to that conclusion after making an
objective study of these prophecies without discounting one person or
another or giving preference to one person or another, then perhaps we
can freely and openly discuss your analysis. There is one thing that I
can guarantee you about myself: you will find me, God willing, an
unbiased person.
Divinity Of Christ
You have mentioned that the Gospels of Mathew, Mark, Luke, and John
clearly points to the divinity of Christ. This may be the belief, but I
am sorry that this is not based on facts. If divinity of Jesus is the
central theme of Christianity, they the gospels should clearly establish
that fact. Jesus should clearly and repeatedly say in the gospels that
he is divine, that he is one of the 3 gods, that people should worship
him as god. But that is not to be found in the gospels, contrary to
what an ordinary Christian would believe. You will not find the word
"Trinity" anywhere in the 4 gospels, although it is a fundamental theme
of Christianity. If it is of any interest to you, then perhaps you
can undertake a study of the early Christianity and see how the
Christian doctrines and the early church was developed. If the fairness
of the Muslims' claims are questioned, then one can read books written
by Christian historians themselves. If you like to engage with me in
discussion about the early history of Christianity, then I would be
happy to. Here, I would simply mention that the divinity of Christ was
established by the church not prior to the 4th century. It was only
then the current four gospels were accepted as canonical and all the
other gospels available were destroyed. That council is called the
"Council of Nicea" which was held in 325 AD. It was called for by the
emperor Constantine to settle disputes that was sweeping the Christian
world about whether Jesus was god or whether he was man. Obviously,
many of the gospels that were destroyed portrayed Jesus to be man. The
divinity of Jesus and the concept of the Trinity not only sets
Christianity apart from Islam but from the teachings of the Old
Testament as well where all prophets preached pure monotheism. I am
sure you will find my statement difficult to accept, but there is a
substantial difference between the Christianity that Jesus (p) preached
and the Christianity that is known today. This is not just what
Muslims claim, but this is what western scholars of history tell us as
well. These are all later developments that have been attributed to
Jesus, corrupting, unfortunately his pure message. And there is one
person who can be credited for this more than any other: St. Paul.
Indeed, according to some, St. Paul should be considered the real
founder of Christianity, not Jesus:
"Paul's influence on Christian theology has been incalculable. His ideas include the following: Jesus was not merely an inspired human prophet, but was actually divine. Christ died for our sins, and his suffering can redeem us. Man cannot achieve salvation by attempting to conform to biblical injunctions, but only by accepting Christ; conversely, if one accepts Christ, his sins will be forgiven. Paul also enunciated the doctrine of original sin. .. Indeed, the influence of Paul's ideal has been so great that some scholars have claimed that he, rather than Jesus, should be regarded as the principal founder of the Christian religion." - Michael H. Hart, "The 100: A Ranking of the Most Influential Persons in History", New York, 1978.Any person who sincerely and objectively undertakes the study of the development of Christianity will not only find that the actual message of Jesus has been lost by doctrines developed by others but will also find, if his study of Islam has also been objective, that Islam actually has restored the true image of Jesus, which is: he was a human being and a messenger of God who he preached God's unity and invited people to obey God.
The root of Christianity is the original sin upon which the crucifixion
is justified and used for the benefit of Christians. If original sin is
thrown away, then the crucifixion becomes dead.
None of these two man-made beliefs are true and original sin is nowhere to be found in the entire Bible.
Gen. 3:14
"And
the Lord God said unto the serpent, 'Because thou hast done this, thou
art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon
thy belly shalt thou go, and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy
life'".
This is a curse upon the serpent and that too only a worldly one.
Ezek 18:4
Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.
Ezek 18:20
The soul that sinneth, it shall die.
(Deuteronomy 24:16)
“The
fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the
children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to
death for his own sin.”
The
Bible is very clear that no person will be responsible for the sins of
others. Each person is answerable for himself alone and cannot blame it
on Adam and Eve.
This concept matches exactly the Qur’anic point on this issue.
(Quran 6:164)
“No person earns any (sin) except against himself (only), and no bearer of burdens shall bear the burden of another.”
Some
contradictory verses do exist in the Bible which Christians use to
defend this man-made concept of original sin. If we take a closer look
at these verses, we see that they too do not talk about the original sin
the way Christian believe it to be.
For example:
Gen 3:17
And
unto Adam he said, Because thou hast hearkened unto the voice of thy
wife, and hast eaten of the tree, of which I commanded thee, saying,
Thou shalt not eat of it: cursed [is] the ground for thy sake; in sorrow
shalt thou eat [of] it all the days of thy life;
Gen 3:18
Thorns also and thistles shall it bring forth to thee; and thou shalt eat the herb of the field;
Gen 3:19
In
the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the
ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou [art], and unto
dust shalt thou return.
These
verses might appear to be about the original sin but if we read them
carefully, we see that they only talk about worldly punishments and
nothing more.
Where in the Bible is it written that man is destined to eternal damnation for the inherited sin?
Where does the Bible say that the sole or main purpose of Jesus was to undo what Adam had done?
John 1:29
The next day John sees Jesus coming unto him, and says, Behold the Lamb of God, which takes away the sin of the world.
Prophets
are sent by God to be examples of the message they have brought.
Prophets are sent to bring mankind on the right path and to lead them
away from a sinful life. Therefore, Jesus takes away the sins of the
people by guiding them and showing them the right path. Secondly, Jesus
never says such a thing, it is John who does so.
Rom. 5:12
"Wherefore,
as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so
death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:"
Rom. 5:19
"For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners,..."
These verses say that due to the sin of Adam, death arises. Not
eternal death but death in the world. This is the appropriate
interpretation; otherwise, there is a contradiction with the following
verses:
Jer. 31:29-30
"In
those days they shall say no more, The fathers have eaten a sour grape,
and the children's teeth are set on edge. But every one shall die for
his own iniquity: every man that eateth the sour grape, his teeth shall
be set on edge."
Ezek 18:4
Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.
Ezek 18:20
The soul that sinneth, it shall die.
(Deuteronomy 24:16)
“The
fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the
children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to
death for his own sin.”
The death being talked about is the death in this world and not punishment in hell.
Prov.20:9
"Who can say, I have made my heart clean, I am pure from my sin?"
The way to cleanse oneself from sin to clean one’s heart and not to believe in crucifixion or Trinity.
Psalms 51:5
Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.
The above verse needs to be seen in context to be understood fully.
51:1
Chief Musician, A Psalm of David, when Nathan the prophet came unto him, after he had gone in to Bathsheba.
Have mercy upon me, O God, according to thy lovingkindness: according
unto the multitude of thy tender mercies blot out my transgressions.
51:2
Wash me thoroughly from mine iniquity, and cleanse me from my sin.
51:3
For I acknowledge my transgressions: and my sin ever before me.
51:4
Against
thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done [this] evil in thy sight: that
thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, [and] be clear when thou
judgest.
51:5
Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.
If
we read in context, we see that the person saying these words is
actually a sinner, see verse 3 and 5. This shows that this person was
actually a sinner himself and talks about sins happened before him.
Nathan
came from Aaron's wife who was a fourth generation bastard son of
Judah, so her sons were fifth generation sons. As the bible says, God's
law specifically banned bastards and their descendants from entering the
assembly of Yahweh for at least ten generations(Dt. 23:2).
According to the bible, David was a ninth generation bastard. David was the 9th generation son of Perez, the bastard son of Judah and Tamar.
His
lineage is shadowed and shameful: his father descended from Moab, a
product of incest between Lot and his daughter after Sodom's
destruction, down through Ruth, a Moabite convert.
David was believed to be bastard by his father and brothers. Such allegations have been made against Prophet David.
I
was shapen in inequity can be taken as two meanings, first that when he
was in his mother's belly and was being taken a shape and the second is
his growing up days.
Whichever way you take it, the sin being talked about is personal and not hereditary.
If you take,
I was shapen in iniquity
as growing up days, even then these sins are personal. King David is accused of deceit, adultery and murder in the Bible.
It is surprising that such a huge concept of Christians, 'Original Sin' has no mention in the bible.