Wednesday, 5 June 2013

Refuting the webiste "1000 Mistakes in the Quran"

Here is my reply to her in bold red fonts for the so called contradictions. I had to get help from some Islamic websites for some replies. I am posting here the communication because may be someone may find it useful)

Dear Sara,

Please find below my comments in bold red fonts.

Dear Abdul,
I have nothing against you. But the religion you are following (now I have no religion) is not the real one. Can you say this from your heart?. Please answer me. I won’t trouble in IM any more.

I know that personally you don’t have grudge against me. You have the freedom to either accept or reject Islam. According to Quran there is no compulsion in Islam (2:256). I never knew that you are under such a prejudiced and biased understanding of the Quran as you will know from my answers to the various ‘contradictions’ that you quoted about the Quran. If you go through my comments below, you will know that they are just anti Islamic propaganda.

I must tell you that, it is not fair on your part to simply copy and paste from enemies of Islam without checking the truth by yourself.

Contradictions In the Inheritance Law
(Koran 4:11)
Allah directs you as regards your children's (Inheritance): to the male a portion equal to
that of two females: if only daughters, two ormore, Their share is two-thirds of the inheritance; if only one, her, share is a half. For parents, a sixth share of the inheritance to each, if the deceased left children; if no children, and the parents are the heirs, the
mother has a third; if the deceased left brothers the mother has a sixth...

(Koran 4:12)
In what your wives leave, your share is a half, if they leave no child; but if they leave a child, ye get a fourth; after payment of legacies and debts. In what ye leave, their share is a fourth, If ye leave no child; but if ye leave a child, they get an eighth; after payment.
(Koran 4:176)
...If it is a man that dies, leaving a sister but no child, she shall have half the inheritance:
If a woman dies and leaves no child, her brother takes her inheritance: If there are two sisters, they shall have two-thirds of the inheritance. If there are brothers and sisters, the male takes twice the share of the female.

Let us suppose that a man dies and leaves behind three daughters, two parents and his wife. According to the verses stated above the three daughters together will receive 2/3 of the share, the parents will receive 1/3 of the share and the wife will receive 1/8 of the share.

Do the math once again: 2/3 + 1/3 + 1/8 = 9/8 = 1.125. The distribution of the property adds up to more than the available property! How can this distribution be possible? Once again Mohammed displays his inability to add. Well, if a person can't add integers then it is unprobable that he would know how to add fractions.
Another example: A man dies and leaves behind his mother, his wife and two sisters. According to what Mohammed has stated in Koran 4:11-12 and 4:176 the mother will receive 1/3 of the property, the wife will receive 1/4 of the property and the sisters will receive 2/3 of the property.
Let us add up the fractions again: 1/3 + 2/3 + 1/4 = 5/4 = 1.25 and once again it adds up to more than the available property.

Let me first extract the translation that you have provided from Adullah Yusuf Ali for verse 4:11; and 4:12. I quote;

“(Koran 4:11)
Allah directs you as regards your children's (Inheritance): to the male a portion equal to that of two females: if only daughters, two ormore, Their share is two-thirds of the inheritance; if only one, her, share is a half. For parents, a sixth share of the inheritance to each, if the deceased left children; if no children, and the parents are the heirs, the mother has a third; if the deceased left brothers the mother has a sixth...

(Koran 4:12)
In what your wives leave, your share is a half, if they leave no child; but if they leave a child, ye get a fourth; after payment of legacies and debts. In what ye leave, their share is a fourth, If ye leave no child; but if ye leave a child, they get an eighth; after payment.”

Now your claim is that, according to the above verses, if a man dies and leaves three daughters, two parents and his wife, three daughters together will receive 2/3 of the share, the parents will receive 1/3 of the share and the wife will receive 1/8 of the share.

If you read the Qur’an in Arabic you will see that at the beginning of 4.11 Allah uses the plural word in Arabic ‘awlaad’ for “…your children’s (inheritance)…” but then Allah uses the singular word in ‘walad’ for “…if the deceased left a child...” Therefore, the above translation, ‘if the deceased left children’, is incorrect as the Qur’an uses the word walad and not awlaad, and walad is the Arabic word for a child, or one child, where as awlaad is the word for more than one child or children. Pickthall and many other Quran translators have given a proper translation.

Now let us look at 4.11 a little closer. We are told that two or more daughters (if and only if the man dies with no sons) will receive 2/3’s of the man’s inheritance. We are also told that the parents will receive a sixth (1/6) of the man’s inheritance if the deceased left a child (not children) (to each, thus we take 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/6 or 1/3). In the example that you provided, there are more than one child. Therefore, the Quran does not fix here the share of the parents as 1/3 in this particular instance. The share of the wife will be 1/8 as per verse 4:12.

Now let us test this out. Let’s use the scenario stated by you. A man dies and leaves behind three daughters, his parents, and a wife. Because we are not told what his parents will get if he has children,we must then substitute a variable in place of his parents, and we get the following simple equation: 2/3 (for daughters from verse 4:11) + 1/8 (for wife from verse 4.12) + X (for parents) = 1 (using 1 as 100% the man’s wealth) Let’s solve this.
2/3 + 1/8 = 19/24
19/24 + X = 1
X = 1 – 19/24

X = 5/24
And this works as 2/3 + 1/8 + 5/24 is indeed equal to 1.

I hope that you now understood how to distribute wealth in the given scenario provided by you. Now let us look at the second claim.

You also claim that there is a further discrepancy in this matter in the case of a man who leaves a mother, a wife, and two sisters. You are arguing that if the allotted shares are added up the total exceeds the total estate, i.e, 1/3 (mother) + 2/3 (sisters) + 1/4 (wife) = 5/4 = 1.25 will be more than the available property.

You are again mistaken. To arrive at the said allotted shares, here you refers to the shares allotted in Surah 4, verse 176 of the Qur’an. You have conveniently quoted only part of the verse (“...If it is a man that dies, leaving a sister but not child) Please take the Quran and check what is there in the dotted portion. I will quote for you the entire verse.
Allah directs (thus) about those who leave no descendants or ascendants as heirs. If it is a man that dies, leaving a sister but no child, she shall have half the inheritance: If a woman dies and leaves no child, her brother takes her inheritance: If there are two sisters, they shall have two-thirds of the inheritance. If there are brothers and sisters, the male takes twice the share of the female.

In the above verse, the case described is that of a man who is called in Arabic "kalalah" which is correctly translated by Yusuf Ali as one who leaves "no descendants or ascendants." This ayah refers to a man who leaves neither parent nor child. At the time of his death his mother already lays in her own grave and as such can lay no claim to a share of inheritance. Then how can you come with an example of a man leaving behind a mother, two sisters and wife and then evolve your fantasies based on this verse?

Allah's Day Equals 1,000 Years or 50,000 Years?
(Koran 22:47)
...A day in the sight of thy Lord is like a thousand years of your reckoning.
(Koran 32:5)
...To Him, on a Day, The space whereof will be a thousands years of your reckoning.
In the above verses it states clearly that a day of Allah is equal to a 1000 earth years. However, there is a contradiction in the verse stated below.
(Koran 70:4)
The angels and the Spirit ascend unto him in a day the measure whereof is fifty thousand years.
So, which one is it? Is the day of Allah equal to 1,000 earth years or 50,000 earth years?

Note that only the first two of these verses speak of a day relative to God (1000 years of our count) .... However, the third verse does not speak of a day relative to God, therefore it must be said that there is no contradiction between the first two verses on one hand and the third verse on the other hand.

As you may aware, the theory of relativity states that since we live in a space-time universe there is no such thing as 'absolute time'. What relativity tells us is that time, measured in our frame of reference (our point of view), runs at a different speed from time in another frame of reference. The amazing notation of these Quranic verses, besides confirming the theory of 'Time Dilation', is that they confirm the fact that if there is such frames of reference where one day is equal to a thousand years of our count, and even fifty thousand years of our count, they must be travelling at speeds many times faster than the speed of light.

How Many Gardens Of Paradise?
(Koran 39:73)
And those who feared their Lord will be led to THE Garden...
(Koran 41:30)
...But receive the glad tidings of THE Garden that which ye were promised!
(Koran 57:21)
Be ye foremost in seeking forgiveness from your Lord, and A Garden...
(Koran 79:41)
Their abode will be THE Garden.
In the above verses Mohammed refers to only ONE Garden of Paradise, but in the verses below he contradicts himself once again by saying that there are MANY Gardens of paradise.
(Koran 18:31)
For them will be GARDENS of Eternity...
(Koran 22:23)
Allah will admit those who believe and work righteous deeds.
To GARDENS beneath which rivers flow...
(Koran 35:33)
GARDENS of Eternity will they Enter...
(Koran 78:32)
GARDENS enclosed, and Grapevines;
It looks like Mohammed could not make up his mind about the number of Gardens of Eternity in heaven.

The reply to this trivial claim is two-fold. First, and by reading verses (39:73, 41:30, 57:21, 79:41) we see that they speak of paradise in general. They do not speak of how many gardens there are in paradise. In that respect they do not contradict verses (18:31, 22:23, 35:33, 78:32) that speak of many gardens in paradise.

Second, and more importantly, all descriptions of Heaven and Hell throughout the Quran are allegorical. The Quran tells us that these descriptions are allegorical, whenever such descriptions occur as independent statements, not within a general subject. See 2:24-26, 13:35, and 47:15. The word "Mathal" (allegory) is used in these verses. Linguistically, the word "Mathal" in these verses can be removed, and we still have perfect sentences. But it is there because the descriptions of Heaven and Hell are allegorical.

What Heaven and Hell are really like is far beyond our comprehension. Hence the need for allegory. How can one describe, for example, the taste of chocolate to a person who never tasted chocolate? Allegory will have to be used. The person has to wait to actually taste chocolate in order to know what chocolate tastes like. Whatever allegory we use to describe the taste of chocolate can never approximate the real thing.

How Many Groups Of People During The Last Judgement?
(Koran 56:7)
And ye shall be sorted out into THREE classes.
The contradictory verses:
(Koran 90:18-19)
Such are the Companions of the right hand.
But those who reject our signs, they are
the companions of the left hand.
(Koran 99:6-8)
On the Day will men Proceed in companies sorted
out, to be shown the deeds that they had done.
Then shall anyone has done an ounce of good,
see it! And anyone who Has done an ounce of evil,
shall see it.
At first, Mohammed says that during the Last Judgement people will be divided into 3 groups. But in the later verses he seems to have changed his mind to 2 groups -- the group that has done evil and the group that has done good.

A False claim. verses 90:18-19 speaks of two of the 3 groups, it does not say that there are ONLY 2 groups……… where as 99:6-8 does not speak of any of the three groups. Consider the following example: Suppose we are given some information in two sentences:

1st Sentence : There are three cars in the garage, one on the right, one on the left and one in the front.

2nd Sentence: The one on the right is green, the one on the left is black.

Can we say that since the 2nd sentence speaks only of two cars , then there is only 2 cars in the garage? Can we say that there is a contradiction between the two sentences? Obviously not…… When we examine the verses in the Quran that are subject to this false claim, we read a similar example to that of the three cars. First we read 56:7-107. You will be stratified into three kinds.

8. Those who deserved bliss will be in bliss (described in verse 27 as the ones on the right)
9. Those who deserved misery will be in misery (described in verse 41 as the ones on the left)
10. Then there is the elite of the elite.

Now when we read 90:17-19:
17. And being one of those who believe, and exhorting one another to be steadfast, and exhorting one another to be kind.
18. These have deserved bliss.
19. As for those who disbelieved in our revelations, they have incurred misery.
20. They will be confined in the Hellfire.

We note that verse 18 here speaks of the group described in 56:8……….while verse 19 speaks of those described in 56:9

Nowhere do we read in this Surah that these two groups will be the only groups on the day. Furthermore, when we read to the other verses that are referred to and are supposed to be in contradiction to 56:7 , and they are 99:7-8 , we see that they do not talk of any groups as such. These are the words:

7. Whoever does an atom's weight of good will see it.
8. And whoever does an atom's weight of evil will see it.

These words say on Judgment Day we will be accountable for everything that we have done, there is no mention of any groups of people here.

Who Takes The Souls After Death?
Sometimes Mohammed states that THE Angel of Death takes the souls after death and at another he says that there are ANGELS who take the souls at the time of death and at yet another time Mohammed states that it is in fact Allah who takes the souls. The relevant verses are listed below.
(Koran 32:11)
THE ANGEL of death, put in charge of you will take your souls then shall ye be brought back to your Lord.
(Koran 47:27)
But how will it be when the ANGELS take their souls at death, and smite their faces and their backs?
(Koran 39:42)
It is Allah that takes the souls of men at death; and those that die not He takes during their sleep...

Again you are making a false claim. In fact, whatever the angels do is in accordance with God's will. In 32:11 we are told that for each individual there is an angel placed in charge of when the appointed death time comes. "Say, 'You will be put to death by the angel in whose charge you are placed, then to your Lord you will be returned."

However, when we read 47:27, we note that it speaks about the disbelievers in plural. This is indicated by the word 'them' in the verse. "How will it be for them when the angels put them to death? They will beat them on their faces and their rear ends."

Since verse 47:27 speaks of the disbelievers in plural, thus the word 'angels' is used in plural. Finally, in 39:42, we are told that it is God who takes our souls.

"GOD puts the souls to death when the end of their life comes …………. "

I will illustrate you this with a practical example. let us consider the following example of the following two statements:

'In the beginning of the World War the German forces invaded Poland."

'In the beginning of the World War Hitler invaded Poland."

Can we say that there is a contradiction between these two statements? Obviously not, for although it is obvious that Hitler did not go personally with a gun and invade Poland, it is understood that the German forces were acting upon Hitler's commands when invading Poland. Consequently, it is correct to say both sentences without having any contradictions.

Similarly, and although it is the angels who are in charge of putting people to death, yet they are acting upon the commands of Almighty God, and in that sense our lives are terminated in accordance with God's will.

During The Birth Of Jesus How Many Angels Spoke To Mary?
According to the Koran how many angels spoke to the virgin Mary at the time of the announciation of Jesus's birth? Well, Mohammed was no too sure about this, so he said that there were several angels in one verse and in the other he states that there was only one.
(Koran 3:42)
Behold! the ANGELS said: "O Mary! Allah hath chosen thee...
(Koran 3:45)
Behold! the ANGELS said: "O! Mary! Allah giveth thee...
(Koran 19:17)
...Then We sent to her (Mary) Our ANGEL...
Aside from the one angel Vs. many angels contradiction you will notice that Mohammed mostly refers to Allah as a singular entity throughout the Koran. However, he is not consistent with this as we see in the above verse where Mohammed says WE not I. Clearly he refers to Allah as a plural entity in this verse. There are many other such verses in the Koran (Refer to verses 21:43-51 and other such verses which I have written below). God cannot make such a glaring mistake and therefore, it must be Mohammed who is stating these verses in the Koran.
The "We" in this case refers to the pagan Gods of pre-Islamic Arabia. Mohammed took a lot from the scriptures of the Pagans, Jewish, Christian and Vedic faiths and insidiously distorted their meanings to suit his devilish needs.

This assumed contradiction is a direct result of the your poor understanding of the Quran. Actually, these two sets of verses speak of different times, and different events. It is true that verses 3:42-45 speak of several angels, while 19:17-21 speak of only one (Gabriel), however by reading these verses carefully we note that they speak of different events that took place at different times.
A- We read in 3:44:
"……..when they drew their raffles to select Mary's guardian. You were not present when they argued with one another."

These words confirm that the timing of verses 3:42-45 is related to the time when a guardian was chosen to look after Mary, and thus a time when Mary was still young and before she was married to Joseph (since no guardian would be selected for a married woman). Consequently, this also indicates that the timing of these verses was before the actual conception and birth of Jesus.

At that time, we are told that the angels (in plural) foretold Mary the good news about the coming of Jesus.

"The angels said, "O Mary, GOD gives you good news: a Word from Him whose name is `The Messiah, Jesus the son of Mary. He will be prominent in this life and in the Hereafter, and one of those closest to Me." 3:45

However, in 19:17-21 , we are told of the specific time of the conception of Jesus inside Mary's womb.

At that time Mary was a grown up married woman. That mission was given specifically to Gabriel, thus we read in 19:19 how Gabriel told Mary that he was sent specifically by Almighty God to grant her a pure child:

"He (Gabriel) said, "I am the messenger of your Lord, to grant you a pure son."

With the risk of repetition, I say again, this assumed contradiction is a direct result of the your poor understanding of the Quran.

Infinite Loop Problem
Now I will show that if we hold the following verses to be true then they will lead us to an infinite loop and eventually making the same verses invalid.
(Koran 26:192-196)
Verily this is a revelation from the Lord of the
worlds: with it came down the Spirit of Faith and
Truth to thy heart and the prespicuous
Arabic tongue, without doubt it is announced in the
writings of revealed Books of former peoples.
In this sura, we find that Koran is announced in the earlier writings. First point to note here is that none of the earlier revelations were in Arabic. For example, the earlier writings were Torah and Injil written in Hebrew and Greek.

Two contradictions arise immediately:
1. How can an Arabic Koran be contained in books of other languages?
2. For verses (26:192-196) to be true, an earlier revelation X (for example) has to include those very verses (26:192-196) since the Koran is properly contained in all earlier revelations. Now, having those verses in the revelation X means that X itself has to be contained in yet another earlier revelation Y. Applying the same logic, Y has to be contained in yet another earlier revelation Z and so on. We find ourselves in an infinte loop which proves the absurdity of the verses (26:192-196)

I can only say that it is due to the poor understanding of the Quran. “It (the Quran) has been prophecied in the books of the earlier generations." (26:196) The meaning of verse 196 has been completely misinterpreted here. By reading 26:196 we can clearly see that it does not say that the Quran was written in the earlier Scripture, but that it was foretold in the earlier Scripture. In every divine Scripture we are told of prophecies of the prophets and Scripture to follow. The Old Testament contained many prophecies about the coming of Jesus Christ. Similarly the Bible contained prophecies about the coming of a prophet after Jesus who brings a Scripture from God (see John 14:15-16, 14:26, 15:26-27, 16:13)

Scientific Contradictions

The Koran teaches us that there are seven heavens one above the other and that the stars are in the lower heaven, but the moon is in the midst of the seven heavens.
However, in reality the stars are much further away from the earth than the moon.
(Koran 67:3-5)
He Who created the seven heavens, one above the
other...And WE have adorned the lowest heaven with
lamps ...
(Koran 71:15-16)
Do you not see how God has created the seven heavens
one above the other, and made the moon a light in their
midst,and made the sun as a lamp?
(Koran 71:41:12)
And He completed the seven heavens in two
days and inspired in each heaven its command;
and We adorned the lower heaven with lamps,
and rendered it guarded...
Firstly, the Koran states that there are seven heavens in universe. Any sane person who has studied a bit of Modern Astronomy can tell that the conception of seven heavens was nothing but a result of Mohammed's absurd imagination. Muslim compliers try to cover up this serious flaw in the Koran by saying that the ex-pression should be considered poetic rather than scientific.
Secondly, Koran claims that the stars are in a lower or even lowest heaven, while the moon is in a middle heaven. Even a child in primary standard knows today that the stars are much much further away from the earth than the moon.

Again a false claim The seven universes are one inside the other. The 7th universe, which is the smallest of the seven universes, and which is the innermost, and which we live in, is surrounded by the 6th universe. The 5th universe surrounds the 6th ...and so on, till we get to the 1st universe, which is the greatest and outermost universe.

In that respect, anything that lies inside the 7th universe is also inside the 6th, 5th...... up to the 1st universe, since the 7th universe lies at the centre of all universes.

The moon, sun, stars plus all the galaxies and the farthest heavily bodies (quasars) all lie inside the 7th and smallest universe. That is the universe in which we live.
The moon, all the stars we see in the sky, plus all the galaxies we see are all part of the innermost 7th universes. With this in mind, if you read all the the verses you will see no contradiction. The Quran does not say that moon is in the middle heaven. It is your wild imagination. The Quran does specifically refer to moon and sun because of its importance to humankind.

Before clinging to such imaginary claims to show that Quran contradict science, you may better learn to appreciate so many other verses in the Quran which corroborate the modern finding, which was totally unknown during the time of the prophet. Let me quote a few verses from the Quran, when there was no astronomy at all to corroborate.

After mentioning the sun and the moon, God says: "Each one is travelling in an orbit with its own motion" (Qur'an 21:33; 36:40).

Only recently modern science has found out the universe is expanding. The following verse of the Qur'an (sura 51, verse 47) where God is speaking, corroborate this: "The heaven, We have built it with power. Verily. We are expanding it."

1400 years before Quran spoke about modern astronomy’s finding about the BIG BANG theory. "Do not the unbelievers see that the heavens and the earth were fused together, then we separated them . . ." (Qur'an 21:30).

The Quran speaks of the spinning of the Earth by saying:
"He (God) coils the night onto the day and coils the day onto the night" 39:5

The word "coils" is quite accurate in describing the spinning movement.

Solomon listens to ants
The Koran talks about an incident where Somolom listens to ants while they are "talking".
(Koran 27:18-19)
At length, when they came to a valley of ants, one of
the ants said: "O ye ants, get into your habitations,
lest Solomon and his hosts crush you (under foot)
without knowing it."
So he smiled amused at her speech; and he said: "O my Lord! so order me that I may be grateful for Thy favours, which Thou has bestowed on me and on my parents, and that I may work the righteousness that will please Thee: And admit me, by Thy Grace to the ranks of Thy Righteous Servants."
This in deed is a new discovery by Mohammed about ants which directly contradicts the scientific fact that ants communicate using smells, not modulation of sounds. Solomon could not have heard any talk since ants do not produce any sound.

Here the usage of the word ‘said’ in the Quran should not be translated in the literal sense. The usage the Arabic word 'said' does not necessarily imply verbal communication or communication through spoken words. On the contrary, in Arabic language may sometimes be used for communication of ideas, feelings and thoughts, through any mode of communication.

It may further be noted that the Qur'an has not used any such words like 'listen', 'hear' or 'overhear' for Solomon's comprehension and understanding of what the ant 'said'. The Qur'an, on the contrary, has only implied that Solomon understood and comprehended what the ant 'said'.

The Qur'an does not 'say' that ants communicate through speech, on the contrary, it only 'says' that whatever the mode of communication in ants, Solomon comprehended and understood their communication, as a part of the special favors that he was granted by the Almighty

The Embryonic Development
Koran clearly states that human beings are formed from a clot of blood
(Koran 23:14)
Then WE made the sperm into a clot of congealed
blood; then of that clot We made a (foetus) lump;
then We made out of that lump bones and clothed the
bones with flesh
This is scarcely a scientific description of embryonic development. It ignores to mention the female egg (the second and equally important half) and the process of fertilization when egg and sperm unite to form one new cell.
It mentions the obvious (the sperm), the visible, that which all mankind knew for a long time which is necessary to create a human. But the Koran does NOT mention the invisible (the female egg), which we know only through modern medicine.

It is also wrong. It is scientifically proven that once the egg has been fertilized in the fallopian tube, it descends to lodge itself inside the uterus. This process is called the ‘implantation of the egg'. Implantation is a result of the development of villosities, which, like roots in the soil, draw nourishment from the wall of the uterus and make the egg literally cling to the womb. The process of implantation is appropriately described in several verses by the word ‘alaq, which is also the title of the chapter in which one of the verses appears:

"God fashioned humans from a clinging entity." Qur'an, 96:2

I do not think there is any reasonable translation of the word ‘alaq other than to use it in its original sense. It is a mistake to speak of a ‘blood clot' here, which is the term many translators are used.

The evolution of the embryo inside the maternal uterus is described (though only briefly) in the verse that you have quoted. The description is accurate, because the simple words referring to it correspond exactly to fundamental stages in its growth. This is what we read in a verse 23:14:

"I fashioned the clinging entity into a chewed lump of flesh and I fashioned the chewed flesh into bones and I clothed the bones with intact flesh." Qur'an, 23:14

The translation for the above verse, that you have provided (Then WE made the sperm into a clot of congealed blood; then of that clot We made a (foetus) lump; then We made out of that lump bones and clothed the bones with flesh) is not a proper translation.

For more information on this issue, you may read, The Quran and Modern Science
by Dr. Maurice Bucaille (Edited by Dr. A. A. Bilal Philips) 877-WHY-ISLAM Website - Introduction to Islam

Please note that the author is not a Muslim. Let me quote what he has to say about the Quran at the end of this humble work;

“Such facts as I have had the pleasure of exposing to you here, appear to represent a genuine challenge to human explanation leaving only one alternative: the Qur'an is undoubtedly a revelation from God.”

Sun-set and Sun-Rise
Koran also teaches us that the Sun sets in a muddy spring.
(Koran 18:86)
Till, when he [the traveller Zul-qarnain]
reached the setting-place of the sun,
he found it going down into a muddy spring...
(Koran 18:90)
Till, when he reached the rising-place of the
sun, he found it rising on a people for whom
WE had appointed no shelter from it.
Firstly, It is scientifically proven that the sun does not go down in a muddy spring.
Secondly, this seems to presuppose a flat earth, otherwise how can there be an extreme point in the West or in the East? It does not say, he went as far as possible on land in these directions and then observed the sun-rise or sun-set while standing at this shore. A sunrise there would be basically just the same as at any other place on this earth, at land or sea. It would still look as if it is setting "far away". It does say, that he reached THE PLACE where the sun sets and in his second journey the place where it rises.

It is a shame to interpret the verses of the Quran in this literal manner. The Qur'an says that one of the righteous men of God's servants saw the sun setting in a certain place of the Earth-in a particular a well full of water and mud. There, this man found some people. Let us read what is recorded in the Qur'an "When he reached the setting place of the Sun, he found it setting in a muddy spring and found a people thereabout. We said: 'O Dhul-Qarneyn! Either punish or show them kindness" [18:86].

Now you are saying, I quote, “It is scientifically proven that the sun does not go down in a muddy spring”. I do not have much to say in response to this charge, except that I find it ludicrous to even contemplate these passages in a literal sense. In this case, Dhul-Qarnayn arrives at his destination and seems to be moved by its beauty. The description of the Sun setting in the muddy spring is a lovely poetic account of the occasion for a divine command. I do not think anyone thinks, after reading a poem that describes the beauty of the "Sunset," that the poet is ignorant of science because, as we know, the Sun does not move in relation to the earth but rather vice versa. I do not think that anyone who reads the newspaper to find out what time the "Sun sets" should be considered a fool for trusting a source that apparently has not yet recognized that the Solar System is not, after all, Earth-centered, as was long supposed. It should be obvious that the idea of the "Sun setting" has never been understood as literally as the you proposes; it seems unfair to demand a book of religious and spiritual wisdom to suddenly conform to such an unrealistic, strict standard of "scientific piety."

Try to read other hundreds of verses in the Quran wherein the movement of the sun and other scientific facts are clearly discussed.

Why Stars Were Created
Koran gives us further scientific knowledge by telling us that the stars were created by Allah as missiles to throw at the devils.
(Koran 67:5)
And We have (from of old), adorned the lowest
heaven with lamps, and we have made such
(Lamps as) missiles to drive away Satans...
(Koran 37:6-8)
We have indeed decked the lower heaven with
beauty (in) the stars, (for beauty) and for
guard against all obstinate rebellious Satans.
(So) they should not strain their ears in the
direction of the Exalted Assembly but be
cast away from every side.
Thus, the stars are nothing but missiles to throw at devils so that they may not eavesdrop on the heavenly council. Once again we find Mohammed getting high on his weird imagination.
Here you fail to appreciate the metaphor contained in the above verse. First the verse says the suns are created as lamps, giving light to everyone. The second statement that they are made to drive away the satan should be taken as a metaphor. Without the stars the world will be in utter darkness. Darkness is synonymous to devil. The light drives away all kinds of devil. That’s why the verse says that the stars are made “to guard against all obstinate rebellious Satans”.

To understand and to appreciate the above statement, you have you learn the importance of light for the existence of all kinds of living things in the whole universe.

Moreover, there are two points illustrated here: (1) their marvellous beauty and their groupings and motions (apparent or real) manifest and typify the Design and Harmony of the One true Creator: and (2) the power and glory behind them typify that there is a guard against the assaults of Evil. In other words, the stars typify not only beauty but power, at the same time, their creation is such that they are guarded and protected against every assault of Evil.

Sun And Moon Are Subject To Humans?
Koran also reveals the truth that sun and moon are subject to humans.
(Koran 37:6-8)
And He has made subject to you the sun and the moon,
both diligently persuing their courses; and the
night and the day has He (also) made subject to you.
Unfortunately, a human can never bring the sun and the moon subject to himself/herself. They always take their turn and pursue their courses whether they want or not. Sun, moon, day or night are not influenced by anyone's personal wish.

It is the result of incorrect translation of the Quran. The verse does not say that the sun, moon and stars are subject to our commands, but ordained by God for our service.

The Arabic word used is 'Sakhar' which means (ordained). The words "ordained by His Command"confirm that these heavenly bodies are controlled, and ordained by God.

Indeed the sun, moon and the earth have been ordained to very precise specifications for the service of mankind . The following are some examples:
1. If the sun was closer to the earth, present distance being 93 million miles, the temperature on earth would rise sharply causing the evaporation of oceans and rivers and the extermination of all life. If the sun was much further away the earth would freeze to death.

2- If the size of the earth was somewhat less than it's present size, say the size of the moon, it's gravity would have been much weaker. That would result in the failure of the earth to retain it's atmosphere or water vapour, and thus no life would have been possible. If the size of the earth, on the other hand, was larger than it's present size, say the size of Saturn or Jupiter, the gravity would have been too strong. That would cause the atmosphere to be compressed to much lower heights resulting in much higher air pressure. That would also abolish life on earth.

3- If the moon was closer to the earth, the tides would rise causing gigantic waves that would destroy life on islands and coastal areas. If the moon was further away from the earth the tides would come to a standstill leading to the stagnation of seas , the result of which would be grave damage to marine life. These very precise measurements of such variables as distance, mass, speed………..etc. are referred to in the following verses: "The sun and the moon precisely computed……." 55:5

4- The earth spins on it's axis once every 24 hours. If it didn't spin, the oceans would empty all their waters and if it spun much faster it would disperse into empty space.
The spinning movement is also responsible for the night and day, without which one half of the earth would be under continuous sunlight and heat up excessively while the other half would be submerged in total darkness and freeze to death.
The Quran speaks of the spinning of the Earth by saying:
"He (God) coils the night onto the day and coils the day onto the night" 39:5
The word "coils" is quite accurate in describing the spinning movement.

5- The earth rotates round the sun once every 365.25 days. Whilst doing so it is tilted on it's axis at an angle of 33 degrees. As a result , the seasons occur making it possible for the habitation of the planet. If the earth was not tilted on its axis the poles would have been submerged in continuous cold darkness preventing the seasonal thaw of the polar ice. The accumulating ice would eventually result in unshifting frozen poles and little water elsewhere.

6- If the earth's crust had been thicker than it's present thickness all the oxygen would have been absorbed into the earth. Without oxygen no life would be possible. Similarly, if the oceans were much deeper, all the oxygen and carbon dioxide would have been absorbed into the oceans with similar results.

All these precise specifications were referred to in the following verse:
"It is He who created the heavens and the earth in true proportions." 6:73

In that respect, it is evident how the sun, earth and the moon are ordained by God to very precise attributes in service of mankind.

Why Mountains Were Created
Koran clearly explains that mountains were set on the earth so that the earth does not shake when earthquakes take place.
(Koran 21:31)
And We have set on the earth firm mountains, lest it should shake with them
(Koran 16:15)
And He has cast onto the earth firm mountains lest it should shake with you..
(Koran 31:10)
He has created the heavens without supports that you can see, and has cast onto the earth firm mountains lest it should shake with you..
Its very obvious that Mohammed was completely ignorant about the geological reasoning for existance of mountains. He saw that mountains are huge and heavy. So a good way to explain their existence is to say that mountains prevent earthquakes.
Firstly, this particular reason for existence of mountains is a direct contradiction with modern Geology. Geology proves to us that movement of tectonic plates or earthquake itself cause mountains to be formed.
Secondly, if mountains are created to stop the earth from shaking why several dozens of earthquakes happen every year ?

The verse 16:15, is one among a collection of Qur'anic verses that discuss mountains in relation to the earth. (Verse 31:10 makes an identical reference). Read literally (and, therefore, superficially), these verses indicate that the mountains have been "staked" or "pegged" into the earth to prevent it from shaking. Only a crude hermeneutic would inspire the kind of objection that has been raised here, one which imagines God violently inserting mountains into the earth in order to prevent its tremulous movements. In fact, mountains do not "descend from above" but are upwarped from beneath. One general (and, admittedly, vague and imprecise) scientific concept might be gleaned from these passages: the mountains provide some kind of stability and firmness for the earth. The text makes no specific comment about:

1. how the mountains originate,

2. how they offer stability to the earth (except by implying that the earth shakes less as a result of the presence of mountains),

3. or the degree of influence of tectonic processes that threaten the very stability they provide.

By exploring each of these issues in some detail, we shall be able to see that, however vague and imprecise the Qur'anic treatment of geology is, it cannot be deemed inaccurate. The following is a brief conspectus of orogenic geomorphic systems (i.e. mountain-building systems):

... ... [M]ountain-building systems evolve in the special contexts of type, setting, and style. The principal orogenic varieties recognized are (1) mountains of the continent-continent collision type formed by lithospheric plate interaction along continental margins, (2) mountains of the collision type associated with oceanic trenches (sometimes developed along a single continental margin) with an adjacent plate-tectonic subduction system ... and (3) rift-type mountains extending into continental interiors where transcurrent faults shear cratons and deform associated sediment veneers or where spreading zones develop to create fault-block (horstgraben) mountainous terrain (The New Encyclopaedia Britannica, Macropaedia, Vol. 16, p. 710).

There are, thus, three principal means by which mountains arise. This should nullify the possibility of adopting an obsessively literalist and crude reading of Qur'anic material on this subject.

Moon Has Its Own Light?
Koran reveals to us that moon has its own light!
(Koran 10:5)
It is He who made the sun to be a shining glory and
the moon to be a light...
Evreryone in the modern world knows that moon does not have any light of its own.

Another false propaganda. The Qur'an says: "God is the One who made the sun a shine and the moon a light" (Qur'an 10:5).

Commenting on this, Dr. Bucaille says: "Whereas the Bible calls the sun and moon 'lights', and merely adds to one the adjective 'greater' and to the other 'lesser', the Qur'an ascribes differences other than that of dimension to each respectively" (The Bible, the Qur'an and Science, p. 156).

Similarly, the Qur'an says: "Blessed is the One Who placed the constellations in heaven and placed therein a lamp and a moon giving light" (Qur'an 25:61).

Here again, the difference between the sun and the moon is noted. The sun is called a lamp, and the moon is called an object giving light.

Again in the Qur'an God says that He "made the moon a light" and "made the sun a lamp" (Qur'an 71:15-16).

Furthermore, God calls the sun a "blazing lamp" (Qur'an 78:12-13). This term which is used for the sun is never used for the moon in the Qur'an.

In all of these verses, God expresses the notion that the sun and the moon are "not absolutely identical lights" (The Bible, the Qur'an and Science, p. 156).
Dr. Bucaille draws his conclusions from what he found in the Qur'an about the sun and the moon: "What is interesting to note here is the sober quality of the comparisons, and the absence in the text of the Qur'an of any elements of comparison that might have prevailed at the time and which in our day would appear as phantasmagorial" (The Bible, the Qur'an and Science, p 157).

You may read the following parable stated in the Quran to know the difference between light and lamp.

“Allah is the Light of the heavens and the earth. The parable of His Light is as if there were a Niche and within it a lamp: the Lamp enclosed in Glass: the glass as it were a brilliant star: lit from a blessed Tree an Olive neither of the East nor of the West whose Oil is well-nigh luminous though fire scarce touched it: Light upon Light! Allah doth guide whom He will to His Light. Allah doth set forth Parables for men: and Allah doth know all things.

Everything is Created in Pairs?
The following verse tells us that Allah created everything in pairs. For example, sex in plants and animals, day and night, forces of attraction and repulsion, etc.
(Koran 51:49)
And of every thing WE have created pairs:
that ye may receive instruction.
However, Mohammed in his simplistic observation of the world did not notice that there are some things in this world which are not in pairs. For example, bacteria, fungi imperfecti, etc. are members of the Monera Kingdom and reproduce asexually only! The European population of Elodea consists of plants of the same sex as well and therefore they also reproduce through asexual means.
Another example of things not in pairs is the gravitational force. The gravitational force is an attractive force. It does not have a counterpart. There is no such thing as repelling gravity.

In reply to this claim, please be reminded that that the words of the verse said :
"And of everything We have created pairs"

The word 'everything' clearly indicates that God is speaking of everything in the universe and not just some species of plants. So what is this universal arrangement by which everything is created in pairs?

Here we explore the science of Quantum Mechanics.

When we study Quantum Particle Properties, we find that for every elementary particle in the universes there is a special partner called its anti-particle that has the same mass but the opposite electric charge. This is what is called Anti-Matter.
Basically, if a particle and its own anti-particle collide, they cancel one another out. They destroy one another and turn into a flash of pure energy which can manifest itself as light.

For many years this theory remained a theoretical hypothesis, since no anti-matter was ever produced in a lab. However, very recently, a Swiss-based scientist confirmed that anti-matter has been manufactured in tiny amounts!

The scientists at the European Particle Physics Laboratory (CERN), on the Franco-Swiss border, have now set up the world's first anti-matter factory, one of them, Professor Frank Close, told the annual science festival in Wales:

" Nine atoms of anti-hydrogen were produced just over a year ago. Now, the new factory will produce them at a rate of more than 2,000 atoms per hour" Close said.
When matter meets anti-matter, they annihilate each other in a flash. The scientific consensus is that, when the universe was created, matter and anti-matter emerged equally from the Big Bang.
For more details on that matter check : Antimatter:Mirror of the Universe

So once again we witness the Quran's amazing scientific content. The subject of 51:49 and which you failed to interpret correctly, is in fact yet another very accurate piece of knowledge. This verse as seen address's the theory of Quantum Particle Properties, and not the type of 'Reproduction System' (male/female) of one species of plants or another.

Historical Contradictions

Moses And The Samaritan
The Koran tells us that the calf worshipped by the Israelites at Mt. Horeb was molded by a Samaritan. This is stated in the verses (20:85-87, 95-97).
(Koran 20:85)
We have tested the people in thy absence: The
Samaritan has led them astray.
(Koran 20:87)
...Of the whole people, and we threw them into the
fire and that was what the Samaritan suggested.
The word "Samaritan" was not coined until 722 B.C.--several years after the events recorded in the Exodus. This implies that the Samaritan people could not have existed during the life of Moses and were not the ones who molded the calf.
Some Muslims go out of their way in trying to explain this. They say that the actual word here is "Samiri" or "Shomer". However, they should not deviate from the original Arabic which clearly spells out the word "Samaritan".
Obviously, Mohammed had no knowledge of History or when all the events took place, so he jumbled up everything.

Here the assumptions is this. Since the Bible has been in existence longer than the Qur'an, the Biblical account is the correct one, as opposed to the Qur'anic account, which is necessarily inaccurate and false. Here you assume the “History” as narrated in the Bible books are infallible and there are no errors. Commenting on this historical discrepancy and how it undermines the Bible concerning the claim of the Samaritans' origins, A. D. Crown says:

“This is a prima facie evidence that the greatest concentration of people remained in the province until at least sixth century B.C.E. Clearly the story of Samaritan origins in the Bible must be viewed with caution” [25] A. D. Crown, "Samaritan Judaism" in J. Neusner, A. J. Avery-Peck & W. S. Green (Eds.), The Encyclopaedia Of Judaism, 2004, Volume V, Supplement Two, op. cit., p. 2243.

Similar conclusions were also reached by Lester Grabbe. He says:

The origins of the [Samaritan] community and cult are still uncertain. The origins according to interpretations of 2 Kings 17 (pagan foreigners brought in) and Josephus (dissident Jerusalem priests) are the product of considerable bias and cannot be taken at face value.” ( L. L. Grabbe, "Betwixt And Between: The Samaritans In The Hasmonean Period" in P. R. Davies & J. M. Halligan (Eds.), Second Temple Studies III: Studies In Political, Class And Material Culture, 2002, Journal For The Study Of The Old Testament Supplement Series - 340, Sheffield Academic Press: Sheffield (UK), p. 215.)

I am giving you the following link which is an extensive study of this subject, I must say, a great research work. If you read this, you will know that there is no contradiction in the Quran. The link is;

Gospel Existed During The Time Of Moses?
(Koran 7:157)
Those who follow the Messenger, the unlettered
Prophet, whom they find mentioned in their own
(Scriptures),- in the Taurant and the Gospel...
Notice that the above verse is in present tense and thus the obvious problem is that the Gospel was not yet revealed at that time!

To resolve the truth of this claim it is first necessary to determine who is refered to in 7:157 as the "the messenger, the gentile prophet". Gentile prophet is the correct translation, not unlettered prophet.

Here you claim that, in this verse God is speaking to Moses. It can be shown that this is quite impossible. If we assume that God is speaking to Moses in this verse, then "the messenger, the gentile prophet" cannot be Moses himself, since it would make no sense for God to ask Moses to follow himself! Equally, and if God is speaking to Moses in this verse, "the messenger, the gentile prophet" could not be Jesus nor Muhammad since it would make no sense for God to ask Moses to follow a prophet who would come after his time.

The person who is described as "the messenger, the gentile prophet", and who is Muhammad, is in fact the clue in verifying the ones who are addressed in this verse.
The confirmation that it is Muhammad who is refered to as "the messenger, the gentile prophet", is found in the verse that follows:
"Say, (O Muhammad) "O people, I am GOD's messenger to all of you. To Him belongs the sovereignty of the heavens and the earth. There is no god except He. He controls life and death." Therefore, you shall believe in GOD and His messenger, the gentile prophet, who believes in GOD and His words. Follow him, that you may be guided."

By reading all four verses, we can see that in 7:157 God is not speaking to Moses at all, God is speaking to all Jews, not only those at the time of Moses, but for all time.

Haman - A minister of the Pharoah?
(Koran 28:8)
...For Pharaoh and Haman and all their hosts were Men of sin.
(Koran 28:38)
...therefore, O haman! light me a klin to bake bricks
out of clay, and build me a loftly palace...
Here the Koran clearly implies that Haman and the Pharaoh existed at the same time and place. But History tells us otherwise. The Pharaoh lived during the time of Moses and Haman served as a minister of Ahasuerus (Xerxes I). The Koranic verse in this case contains not only an error in location, but also an error of time as well (1,000 years).
Once again the Koran proves to us that either Mohammed had no real knowledge of History or he chose to distort it to suit his evil needs.

The whole basis for the Haman controversy is the appearance of a Haman in the Qur'an in a historical period different from that of the Bible. I am giving a link to you which discusses this issue very extensively.

You may please go through the above link which is a Critical Examination Of The Biblical Evidence Used Against The Qur'an. Only if the Book of Esther can be shown to be both historically reliable and accurate, you will be justified in making the claim the Qur'an contradicts the earlier, more "reliable" historic Biblical account. The matter has been extensively discussed and proved beyond any doubt that there is no contradiction on this issue in the Quran. It is a very extensive and elaborate study by taking into account many historical events in light of recent historical and archaeological discoveries. You may visit that link to know the truth. Please

Other Contradictions:
Creation Of The Heaven And The Earth
Another contradiction in the Koran is about the creation of Heaven and Earth. Which one was created first? As you will see in the verses below Mohammed at one time says that earth was created first and at another time he says that the Heaven was created first.
(Koran 2:29)
It is He who hath created for you all things that
are on earth; THEN he turned to the heaven and
made them into seven firmaments...
(Koran 79:27-30)
What! Are ye the more difficult to create of
heaven (above)? (Allah) hath constructed it...
and after that he extended (created) the earth
to a wide expanse.

If we read 2:29 we note that it does not say that earth was created before the universe, but in accordance with the theory of the Big Bang, it confirms that all matter which the earth is made of (elements) was created before space…….
The very accurate and indeed scientific wording of this glorious verse obviously went unnoticed due to this false claim. The Arabic words (ma fee Al-Ard) literally mean 'what is INSIDE the earth'. Thus God is saying that He has created all matter (of which earth is made of) first then He created space. This is in total agreement with the theory of the Big Bang which states that all matter was confined in an extremely dense singularity, and that space was created after the explosion of this infinitely dense singularity.

Heaven And Earth Came Together Or Ripped Apart?
The next contradiction is about the coming together of heaven and earth Vs. ripping apart from each other.
(Koran 41:11)
...He said to the sky and to the earth: "Come
ye together willingly or unwillingly." They said:
"We do come together in willing obedience."
(Koran 21:30)
Do not the unbelievers see that the heavens and
the earth were joined together before WE clove
them asunder...

Once again this shows your inadequate knowledge. These two verses speak of two very different events. "Do the unbelievers not realize that the heavens (space) and the earth (matter) used to be one solid mass that we exploded into existence?" 21:30
"Then He turned to the sky (space), when it was still smoke, and said to it, and to the earth (matter), "Come willingly or unwillingly." They said, "We come willingly." 41:11
Immediately we are given various accurate scientific indications that these two verses speak of two completely different events.
These indications are:
1- The word 'exploded' in 21:30 confirms the original moment of the Big Bang when time, space and matter were all one unit of creation that exploded outwards.
2- The command from God to space and matter to 'come willingly (into existence)….', in 41:11 implies that space and matter were already in existence. This confirms that this verse speaks of an event subsequent to the initial moment of creation.
3- The word 'smoke' in 41:11 is very accurate in describing the hot gases that formed after the Big Bang explosion, and which condense under their gravitational pull to form stars and galaxies.

It becomes obvious thus that 21:30 speaks of the outward explosion of the Big Bang , while 41:11 speaks of the subsequent inward condensation of clouds of gas and matter under their gravitational force, to form stars and galaxies.

How Was Man Created?
Was man created from a blood clot as the verse below states?
(Koran 96:2)
Created man, out of a mere clot of congealed blood.
Or was man created from water as Mohammed has stated in the verses below?
(Koran 21:30)
...WE made EVERY (including man) living thing
from water...
(Koran 25:54)
It is He who has created man from water...
Or was man created from "sounding" clay?
(Koran 15:26)
He created man from sounding clay, from mud
moulded into shape...
Or was man created from dust?
(Koran 3:59)
...He created him from dust, then said to him
Be and he was.
(Koran 30:20)
Among His signs is this that he created you from
dust; and then- Behold, ye are men scattered
far and wide!
Or was man created from nothing?
(Koran 19:67)
But does not man call to mind that WE created
him before out of nothing.
Or was man actually created from earth?
(Koran 11:61)
...Ye have no other god but him. It is he who
hath created you from the earth and settled you
Or was it a drop of sperm that created man?
(Koran 16:4)
He has created man from a sperm-drop...

The above claim based on poor translation of the Quran and insufficient scientific knowledge. First of all verses 96:1-2 do not say 'blood clot' !!! The correct translation of these two verses is:

"Read, in the name of your Lord, who created. He created man from a 'Alaq' (that which clings)." 96:1-2

The word 'Alaq' literally translates as (that which clings). This highly accurate scientific description, describes the fertilized egg as it clings to the wall of the mother's womb. Obviously, the problem is reading an inaccurate translation of the Quran.

Now let us read the other contested verses:
"Do the unbelievers not realize that the heaven and the earth used to be one solid mass that we exploded into existence? And from water we made all living things. Would they believe?"

Current scientific knowledge confirms the dual meaning of this verse:
1. The history of life on earth confirms that all life originated from water, then crept unto land, later birds were created then mammals and finally man. Therefore the phrase And from water we made all living things is accurate in that respect, and it confirms that all life originated from water.

2- When the chemical composition of any living organism (including the human body) is analysed it is found that it is formed mainly of water (at least 80% or more). This again confirms the accuracy of the phrase And from water we made all living things. In other words all living things are largely composed of water.
It is indeed interesting, and along the same lines, to note that it was found that all liquids in our bodies (tears, saliva, blood, urine, perspiration......etc) contain the same percentage of salt as is found in the oceans.

Next, we move on to the verses that state that man was created from clay, mud, or dust. Since dust and clay are the same thing (dust is dry mud) then they can be addressed together.

Once again, the history of life on earth confirms that at the early stages of the development of earth, and before life was formed, the earth was still very hot, too hot for water to exist in a liquid form. Gradually, and when the earth cooled sufficiently, the water that condensed and formed the seas and oceans mixed with the dirt to form mud. Out of the moulding mud was born the simplest living organisms, in the shape of bacteria and single cell organisms. From these early forms of living organisms originated higher and more complex forms culminating in the creation of man from the same origin, which is mud.

This scientific theory is confirmed in the Quran:
"We created the human being from aged mud, like the potter's clay." 15:26
Also 3:59, 30:20, 35:11

But this is not all, in another verse an amazing scientific information is given that was only to be revealed at least a thousand years after the revelation of the Quran. This is found in the following verse;

"We have created man from a 'Sulalah' (quintessence) of clay" 23:12
The word 'quintessence' means a sample that is a representation of the whole.
Today, when human tissue is analysed, it is found to contain exactly the same eighteen most abundant elements in the earth's crust. These are:
Oxygen, Silicon, Aluminum, Iron, Calcium, Sodium, Potassium, Magnesium, Hydrogen, Chlorofine, Iodine, Manganese, Phosphorous, Lead, copper, silver, Carbon, and Zinc.

For that, the human being is indeed created from earth.........

Next we move to 19:67 which says:
"Did the human being forget that we created him already, and he was nothing?"
On closer inspection we note that this verse does not say that we were created from nothing (as you claim would interpret), the verse says that before we were created we were nothing. There is a big difference between saying, 'we were created from nothing' and between ' before we were created , we were nothing'

Finally, we are told in the Quran that the human being is created from a drop of fluid [16:4, 75:37]
"He created the human from a tiny drop....... " 16:4
"Does the human being think that he will go to nothing? Was he not a drop of ejected semen? Then He (God) created an embryo out of it! He made it into male or female! Is He then unable to revive the dead?" 75:36-40

These verses describe the initial stage of the formation of the embryo, and the fertilization of the female egg by the male sperm. Once again, this is in line with scientific knowledge.

Can Angels Disobey God?
One verse states that this is not possible and in another we have clear proof of an angel disobeying God.
(Koran 16:49-50)
...None of the angels are arrogant before their
Lord...and they do all that they are commanded.
(Koran 2:34)
...WE said to the angels: "Bow down to Adam"
and they bowed down: Not so Iblis: he refused
and was haughty: he was of those who reject
So, Iblis being an angel disobeyed God and this directly contradicts the verses 16:49-50 stated above.

The fact is that the above contradiction stands resolved only by recognizing that the Qur’an has declared that Iblis was not one of the angels, but a jinn. The Qur’an says:

And when We said to the angels: ‘Prostrate before Adam’, they all bowed down, except Iblis -- he was a jinn and he haughtily disobeyed his Lord. (18:50)

However, one may ask that if Iblis was not an angel, then how could he be said to have disobeyed God, by not prostrating before Adam, especially when the Qur’an says that the directive of prostration was addressed to the angels.

The answer to this question is that according to the Qur’an, although it was primarily the angels who were directed to prostrate before Adam, it was, nevertheless, expected of the jinn who were in the court at that time to follow suit. In other words, by directing the angels to bow down before Adam, God had directed a higher cadre of His creation to submit to a command, the lower cadre creations like jinn and any others that may have been present at the time, were expected to do the same. This style of speech is used in almost all human languages. For instance, when someone says: ‘When the Chief Justice enters the hall all the parliamentarians shall pay their respects by standing up for him’, he generally implies that all those present in the hall (personnel of the press, the foreign diplomats, the media personnel and guests of the members) should stand to pay their respects to the Chief Justice. The word ‘parliamentarians’ in such a sentence is not to signify that the directive is given only to those who are members of the parliament, but is a generalization in which a higher cadre of personnel is given a directive with the implication that others are also expected to follow suit.

How Was The Koran Revealed?
Who brought the revelation from Allah to Mohammed? One verse in Koran says that it was Gabriel, then in another we find that it was the 'Holy Spirit'.
(Koran 2:97)
Whoever is an enemy to Gabriel- for he brings down
the revelation to thy heart....
(Koran 16:102)
The Holy Spirit has the brought the revelation from
thy Lord...
It is obvious that Mohammed forgot to cross check his revelations.

Holy Spirit is Gabrial. Both the names are used interchangeably in the Quran. Even if you read the Bible, you will get the same answer. There is good evidence even in the Bible to support this view, the following is one example: "Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: After his mother Mary was betrothed to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Spirit" (Mathew 1:18) Now consider the following verse: "Now in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent by God to a city of Galilee called Nazareth, to a virgin betrothed to a man called Joseph of the house of David. The virgin's name was Mary." (Luke 1:26-27)

Therefore there is no contradiction. It is nothing but a wild imagination.

Confirmation Or Substitution Of Relevations?
Does the new revelation that was brought to Mohammed confirm the old revelations?
(Koran 2:97)
Whoever is an enemy to Gabriel- for he brings down
the revelation to thy heart By Allah's will, a
CONFIRMATION of what went before ?
Or does the new revelation that was brought to Mohammed substitute the old revelations?
(Koran 16:101)
When WE SUBSTITUTE one revealation for another....
It appears, Mohammed could not make up his mind whether he should please people of other religions (Christianity/Judaism) by saying that Koran confirms other holy books or he should take pride in saying that Koran substitutes other earlier revelations.

The Quran confirms the source of the previous Scripture and substitutes some of its laws.

2:97 "Say, "Anyone who opposes Gabriel should know that he has brought down this (Quran) into your heart, in accordance with GOD's will, confirming previous scriptures, and providing guidance and good news for the believers."

16:101 "When we substitute one revelation in place of another, and GOD is fully aware of what He reveals, they say, "You made this up!" Indeed, most of them do not know."

By reading these two verses it becomes difficult to see any contradiction. The revelation of the Quran indeed confirmed that previous scripture were also sent by God (Torah, Injil .....etc).

However, some of the laws prescribed in these older Scripture were substituted with new laws in the Quran.

An example of that is the fact that sexual intercourse between married couples was prohibited at all times during fasting. However, in the Quran it was made permissible between sunset and sunrise.

Was Noah's Son Saved?
(Koran 21:76)
Noah, when he cried to US, aforetime: We listened
to his paryer and delivered him and his family
from great distress.
But the another verse says that Noah's son drowned.
(Koran 11:42-43)
...And the waves came between them, and the son was
among those overwhelmed in the Flood.

21:76 does not say all his family. "And, before that, Noah called and we responded to him. We saved him and his family from the great disaster." 21:76

"Thus, Noah called upon us, and we were the best responders. We saved him and his family from the great disaster. We made his seed the survivors." 37:77

We note here that the verses do not say 'all his family' nor 'all his breed'. It only takes one of Noah's sons to survive for Noah's seed to survive. Equally, if the majority of Noah's family survive, it can be said that his family has survived.
Furthermore, verses 11:42-43 give more details about one of Noah's sons who was a disbeliever and drowned with the others.

"As it sailed with them in waves like hills, Noah called his son, who was isolated: "O my son, come ride with us; do not be with the disbelievers." He said, "I will take refuge on top of a hill, to protect me from the water. "He said, "Nothing can protect anyone today from GOD's judgment; only those worthy of His mercy (will be saved)." The waves separated them, and he was among those who drowned." 11:42-43

The claim that you made would have been valid if the verses said 'all Noah's family' or 'all Noah's seed' , which is not the case.

Moreover, read this verses from Quran, verse 11: 45-46;

“And Noah called upon his Lord and said: "O my Lord! surely my son is of my family! and Thy promise is true and Thou art the Justest of Judges!" He said: "O Noah! he is not of thy family: for his conduct is unrighteous. So ask not of Me that of which thou hast no knowledge! I give thee counsel lest thou act like the ignorant!"

I hope you have got the point now. ok

Will Christians enter Paradise?
In one verse, Mohammed says that the Christians will enter Paradise.
(Koran 2:62)
Those who believe in the Quran...and the
christians...shall have their reward with their
Lord; on them shall be no fear, nor they shall
But in other verses Mohammed happily denies what he said in the previous verse.

The contradictory verses are :
(Koran 5:72)
They do blasphame who say:"Allah is Christ the son
of Mary." But said Christ: "O Children of Israel!
Worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord". Whoever Joins
other gods with Allah-Allah will forbid him
the GRADEN and the Fire will be his abode.
(Koran 3:85)
If anyone desires a religion other than Islam,
never will it be accepted of him; and in the
Hereafter he will be in the ranks of those who have
lost all spiritual good.

There is clear distinction made in these verses between believing Christians from idol worshippers. When we read 2:69 and also 5:69 we see that only the Christians who believe in God are saved. Here, it must be stressed that belief in God means very clearly belief in the ONE God who is not a third of a trinity and who is not Jesus Christ. Therefore, whoever believes that Jesus is God in the flesh does not really believe in the real God who created the heavens and the earth, and who incidentally created Jesus as well. Whoever believes that God is a Tri figure-head, as per the trinity, does not believe in the ONE God either.
This is exactly what 5:72-73 states,
"Pagans indeed are those who say that GOD is the Messiah, son of Mary. The Messiah himself said, "O Children of Israel, you shall worship GOD; my Lord and your Lord." Anyone who sets up any idol beside GOD, GOD has forbidden Paradise for him, and his destiny is Hell. The wicked have no helpers. Pagans indeed are those who say that GOD is a third of a trinity. There is no god except the one god. Unless they refrain from saying this, those who disbelieve among them will incur a painful retribution."

According the Quran God is ONE not three in one. Jesus is the messenger of God and not His son. Therefore those among the Christians who worship God ALONE and are certain that He ALONE is the true God will be in heaven.

We are asserted in the Bible, as well as the Quran that God Alone is the true God:
"And this is eternal life, that they may know you, the ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent." (John 17:3)

These words of Jesus make a very clear distinction between God, the ONLY TRUE GOD, and between himself, plus the fact that he was sent by God.

We also read the words of Jesus that confirm that it is written that we should all worship God ALONE:
"You shall worship the Lord your God, and HIM ALONE you shall serve" Luke 4:8

Now let us read the second verse quoted that you quoted:

"Anyone who accepts other than Islam (Submission) as his religion, it will not be accepted from him, and in the Hereafter, he will be with the losers." 3:85

Submission to Almighty God and obeying His Law is the teaching of all Scripture and not only the Quran. The Old Testament, New Testament, and the Quran all confirm this truth.

Is Wine Good Or Bad?
In one sura we find that wine is Satan's handiwork.
(Koran 5:90)
...Intoxiacants (wine) and gambling...are of Satan's
But then in other suras Koran says there are rivers of wine in Paradise.
(Koran 47:15)
Here is a Parable of the Garden which the righteous
are promised. In it are...rivers of wine...
My question is : how did Satan manage to introduce his handiwork in Paradise?

This again shows poor knowledge of the Quran. It is further clarified in another verse in the Quran 52:23; "They will enjoy drinks that are never polluted, and never sinful to drink."

This verse which speaks about Heaven, confirms that all drinks therein are pure and not polluted in any way (they do not harm the body). And since all drinks and wine in heaven are pure from pollution, they are thus not prohibited.

Is Homosexuality Allowed In Islam?
The Koran contradicts itself on this topic as well. The following verses state that homosexuality is forbidden.
(Koran 4:16)
If two men among you is guilty of lewdness, punish
them both...
(Koran 27:55)
Would ye really approach men in your lusts rather
than Women? Nay, ye are a people (grossly) ignorant!
Now the verses below are in clear contradiction of the above verses.
(Koran 52:24)
Round about them will serve, to them, boys
(handsome) as pearls well-guarded.
(Koran 56:17)
Round about them will serve boys of perpetual
(Koran 76:19)
And round about them will serve boys of perpetual
freshness: if thou seest them, thou wouldst think
them scattered pearls.
Mohammed could not make up his mind about Sodomy. He prohibits it on earth, but then he says that Muslims can enjoy homosexuality in Paradise. It is a well established fact that many famous Muslims were practicing homosexuals who looked towards the Koran to justify their actions. For example, Babar, the moghul king was madly in love with a young boy named Baburi. Kuttubuddin Aibak, another Muslim ruler of India used to dress up as a woman and dance in a vulgar manner.
Another example is Abu Nuwas--one of the greatest poets in Arabic language writes in the Perfumed Garden:
O the joy of sodomy! So now be sodomites, you Arabs.
Turn not away from it--therein is wondrous pleasure.
Take some coy lad with kiss-curls twisting on his temple
and ride as he stands like some gazelle standing to her mate.

-A lad whom all can see girt with sword and belt
not like your whore who has to go veiled.

Make for smooth-faced boys and do your very best
to mount them, for women are the mounts of the devils.
There are other such poems by Abu Nuwas and others which are more graphic in glorifying homosexuality and lesbianism.

It is a shame that you attribute Islam with Homosexuality. If you have eyes to read, read these verses:

Of all the creatures in the world will ye approach males". "And leave those whom Allah has created for you to be your mates? Nay ye are a people transgressing (all limits)!" - Quran 26:165-166

We also (sent) Lut: he said to his people: "Do ye commit lewdness such as no people in creation (ever) committed before you? "For ye practice your lusts on men in preference to women: ye are indeed a people transgressing beyond bounds."- Quran 7:80-81

The following was the punishment given to the Lut people for this wrong doing;

When Our decree issued We turned (the cities) upside down and rained down on them brimstones hard as baked clay spread layer on layer Marked as from thy Lord: nor are they ever far from those who do wrong! - Quran 11:82-83

How dare you compare the description of boys having perpetual freshness serving food like scattered pearls in heaven as something which promote Homosexualism? Have you not seen, even in the present world, when important dignitaries are arrived for any function kids lining up with flowers and bouquet to receive them? Only Homosexuals will come with such a claim that you have made. Even the eyes of shame bow down in shame for the allegations that you have leveled again the Quran in this regard.

Alhamdulillah always 


 A line answer. Arabic,Hebrew,Greek,etc. all had a common ancestor in Armaic. And also, the words stated in the translation are written as Pharaoh is orignally in Arabic, Firaun and Jibreel for Gabriel and Musa for Moses and Isa for Jesus and so on. It is only to facilitate understanding of characters.
"1. The old Arab alphabet had no vowels - it even today is unclear what is the real meaning of many sentences.
2. The written Arab language was not perfected until ca. 900 AD - perfect writing was impossible."
1) ans: AS it didn't need any. the arabs could anyway read and undersatnd it. the vowels were introduced by Caliph Abdul Malik, the Great for the Non-Arabs as they were finding it hard to read it.
2) ans: Perfection means for the Non-Arabs as the script invented by the Caliph still had some problems, which were later on corrected in the Abbasid Period. However, the Quran the Arabs used was the same.
Plus, the Present Arabic is changed repeatedly due to the bedouins, who were speaking a different language. Before the word, Kalla, was used for no, today, it is only La.